Need Answer Sheet of this Question
paper, contact
aravind.banakar@gmail.com
www.mbacasestudyanswers.com
ARAVIND – 09901366442 – 09902787224
ISO: 14001:2004
Q1. The ISO
14001 EMS standard only specifies
a) The structure of
EMS
b) The working of
EMS
c) The behavior of
EMS
d) None
Q2. Which
clause addresses the general requirements of an Environment Management System?
a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.3
d) Clause 4.5
Q3. The ISO
14001 structure, like classic quality management systems, is based on
a) Plan – Check – Do
– Act cycle
b) Check – Plan – Do
– Act cycle
c) Do – Plan – Check
– Act cycle
d) Plan – Do – Check
– Act cycle
Q4. An
environmental system
a) Serves as a tool
to improve environmental performance
b) Provides a
systematic way of managing an organization’s environmental affairs
c) Focuses on
continual improvement of the system
d) All above
Q5. Clause 4.5
of ISO 14001:2004 – …………………… corresponds to the check stage of the PDCA cycle.
a) Planning
b) Checking
c) Verifying
d) None
Q6. A process
of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvement is
overall environmental performance in line with the organization’s environmental
policy is called
a) Environment
b) Continual
Improvement
c) Prevention of
Pollution
d) Environmental
Aspect
Q7. Which
clause states that, ‘the organization shall define and document the scope of
its environmental management system’?
a) Clause 4.5
b) Clause 4.3
c) Clause 4.1
d) Clause 4.2
Q8. Top
managers demonstrate their commitment by articulating the …………………… values.
a) Written values
b) Environmental
values
c) Physical values
d) Numeric values
Q9. Regarding
‘Prevention of Pollution’ the ISO 14001 : 2004 definition incorporates the
concept of
a) End – of – pipe
b) End – of process
c) Reduce creation
of pollutants
d) Eliminate waste
at source
Q10. The
environment policy is a statement of intension. It must be
a) Documented
b) Implemented
c) Maintained
d) All above
Q11. Planning
is covered by
a) Clause 4.1
b) Clause 4.2
c) Clause 4.4
d) Clause 4.3
Q12. Environmental
aspects must be identified only for those activities products, and services
that fall within the …………………… .
a) Undefined scope
b) Defined scope
c) Any scope
d) Predefined
procedure
Q13. The most
typical approach to identification of environmental aspects involves
a) Examination of
individual process
b) Investigate the
complete process
c) Audition of
environmental policy
d) None
Q14. Environmental
impacts can be
a) Acute
b) Chronic
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q15. Which
clause of ISO 14001:2004 states that, ‘within the defined scope of its
environmental management system, the environmental policy is available to the
public’?
a) Clause 4.2
b) Clause 4.2.5
c) Clause 4.3.1
d) Clause 4.5
Q16. If an
organization’s environmental management system is to be effective, it must
eliminate
a) Beneficial
environmental effects
b) Wholly
environmental effects
c) Partially
environmental effects
d) Adverse
environmental effects
Q17. Environmental
Impact states that
a) Any change to the
process
b) Effect of the
climate
c) Any change to the
environment
d) Change the
overall management system
Q18. Clause,
which focuses on activities intended to improve the environmental management
system, is
a) Clause 4.4.4
b) Clause 4.5
c) Clause 4.6
d) Clause 4.3
Q19. The
environmental policy statement contains language that only commits to
compliance with
a) Legal
requirements
b) Other
requirements
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q20. Who is the
responsible for identifying and documenting the legal & other requirements
that apply to the unit’s environmental respects & operations?
a) ISO 14001
coordinator
b) Environmental
manager
c) DNC staff
d) All above
Q21. The legal
& other requirements that may be applicable to a unit’s environmental
aspects may include
a) National &
International legal requirements
b) Local
governmental legal requirements
c) ISO 14001 : 2004
d) All above
Q22. Clause,
which mandates periodic evaluation to see whether an organization is in
compliance with all identified legal requirements, is
a) Clause 4.5.6
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.3.2
d) Clause 4.1
Q23. The
framework for setting and receiving environmental objectives & targets is
provided by
a) Environmental
Management System
b) Environmental
Manager
c) ISO 14001 :2004
d) Environmental
Policy
Q24. Example of
objectives that reflect the policy to conserve “natural resources” are
a) Reduce water use
b) Reduce energy use
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q25. Environmental
targets describe ……………….. will be to achieve stated objectives.
a) What
b) How much
c) Why
d) When
Q26. If there
is a technology that could reduce a significant impact by 50%, but the
organization discovers that the purchasing price is equal to its entire
operating budget. Then which factor should conclude by the organization that
precludes it from purchasing the technology?
a) Financial
requirements
b) Legal
requirements
c) Technological
options
d) Operational
requirements
Q27. In ISO
14001:2004, significant environmental aspects or impacts are the focus of
a) 4.2a clause
b) 4.3.2 clause
c) 4.4.2 clause
d) All above
Q28. An
organization must establish objectives & targets related to
a) Regulatory
compliance
b) Continual
improvement
c) Compliance with
other voluntary required
d) All above
Q29. A
component, which must be determined by the organization in which specific
objectives & targets are to be achieved, is
a) Policy
b) System
c) Time frame
d) Management
Q30. The single
most critical resource, at various levels with an organization is
a) Lack of money
b) Availability of
employees
c) Bad goodwill
d) Labor
Q31. Within the
context of an environmental management system, authority pertains to
a) Influence
b) Power
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q32. The
environmental policy statement contains language that commits to compliance with
legal & other requirements. This commitment is supported by
a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.3.5
d) Clause 4.4.1
Q33. Nonconformity
as “non – fulfillment of a requirement” is defined in
a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.16
c) Section 3.15
d) Section 2.17
Q34. In ISO
14001:2004 clause 4.6 is related to
a) Internal audit
b) Monitoring &
measurement
c) Evaluation of
compliance
d) Management review
Q35. In any
evaluation of worker competence, who may include
a) Temporary workers
b) Contractors
c) Other working on
behalf of an organization
d) All above
Q36. Training
needs must be identified for workers who are required to hold a
a) Worker label
b) Award
c) License
d) Any credential
Q37. Under
which section an interested party is defined as a, “person or group concerned
with or affected by the environmental performance of an organization”?
a) Section 2.11
b) Section 4.12
c) Section 3.13
d) Section 1.11
Q38. ISO
Awareness Training is recorded through various means & it is verified by
a) EMS Internal
audits
b) Operational
Control
c) Control of
Records
d) ISO 14001
Coordinator
Q39. Which
clause confirmed an environmental management system audit is neither an
environmental performance audit not a regulatory compliance audit?
a) Clause 4.5.1
b) Clause 4.5.2
c) Clause 4.5.3
d) Both (a) &
(b)
Q40. Sharing of
information and exchange of ideas among all organizational functions and
levels, is referred to as
a) Transaction
b) Communication
c) Deal
d) Transmission
Q41. With
regard to its environmental aspects and environmental management system, the
organization shall establish & maintain …………………………… between the various
levels & function of the organization.
a) External
communication
b) Internal
communication
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q42. Clause,
which states that responsibility must be defined, documented, &
communicated, is
a) Clause 4.4.1
b) Clause 4.2.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2
Q43. If an
organization provides written information to its all employees, then it is
a) Communicating
b) Conferencing
c) Advertizing
d) Distribution of
information
Q44. ISO 14001:
2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word
mean?
a) A group of
members
b) A program
organized at the last of the year
c) A group of
related actions that contribute to a larger accomplishment
d) A position of
rank
Q45. The
example of external party for an organization could be
a) Regulatory
agencies
b) Community
residents
c) Civic
associations
d) All above
Q46. The
environmental management system documentation shall include
a) The environmental
policy
b) Objectives
c) Targets
d) All above
Q47. To
establish effective procedure, it is necessary to understand what is meant by
the term communication, which is defined in
a) Clause 4.3.4
b) Clause 4.4.3
c) Clause 4.1.4
d) Clause 4.3.2
Q48. An
umbrella document, often in the form of manual, that provides an overview of
the EMS & described how each element of ISO 14001 : 2004 is being achieved
a) System
description
b) Procedure
c) Work instructions
d) Records
Q49. Work
instructions provide
a) Detailed
information for group
b) Information of
EMS
c) Relevant data
d) Detailed
information for individuals
Q50. A document
explains
a) What must be done
b) Format of the
work
c) How should it be
done
d) When it should it
be done
Q51. ISO 14001
:2004 states all documents required by the standard must be controlled which
include
a) Environmental
policy
b) Roles,
responsibilities & authorities
c) Operational
control procedures
d) All above
Q52. Documents,
those created by others brought into an organization for some purpose,
are subject to somewhat different controls, are
a) Internal
documents
b) External
documents
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q53. Section,
which defines a document as “information and its supporting medium,” is
a) Section 3.11
b) Section 2.10
c) Section 3.5
d) Section 3.4
Q54. Documents,
which always reflect the current version because there is only on “location”
(in computer) at which documents are available and are increasingly used by
organization, are
a) Internal
documents
b) External documents
c) Electronic
documents
d) All above
Q55. A
document, that is current at time of issuance and will be updated as revisions
are made, is called
a) Master lists
b) Controlled copy
c) Uncontrolled copy
d) Validation form
Q56. If the
copies of EMS are downloaded, printed, and/or saved electronically, but they
are considered
a) Uncontrolled
b) Controlled
c) Current
d) None
Q57. The
approaches selected by an organization to control its operations should reflect
a) The nature of the
aspect of the interest
b) The media
affected by its interest
c) The purpose of
the control
d) All above
Q58. The
operations of an organization is affected by its
a) Employees
b) Suppliers
c) Contractors
d) All above
Q59. Creating a
new procedure , an organization can use its existing communication procedure to
fulfill the requirements, imposed by
a) Clause 4.5
b) Clause 4.3.2
c) Clause 4.4.3
d) Clause 4.1.4
Q60. When
universal waste & recyclable material is collected, stored, it has managed
for disposal / recycle, at
a) Dustbin
b) Recycling center
c) Organization
d) Anywhere
Q61. Evaluation
of environmental impacts should consider
a) Accidental
emission to the air
b) Accidental
discharges to the water
c) Accidental
discharges to the land
d) All above
Q62. A
database, which includes information used to determine the root cause of the
incident & specifies corrective / preventive actions to prevent recurrence
of the incident, is
a) Environmental
Management System
b) Environmental
Incident Reporting System
c) Integrated
Contingency System
d) None
Q63. Clause
4.4.7 is related to
a) Emergency
preparedness & response
b) Monitoring &
measuring
c) Operational
control
d) Control of
documents
Q64. Regarding
environmental incidents and emergency, all employees are trained to report
environmental incidents & emergency situations to
a) The Environmental
Manager
b) Technical Service
Manager
c) Contractor
d) Load Dispatcher
Q65. An
organization, for every significant environmental impact must decide
a) What to measure
b) How to measure
c) When to measure
d) All above
Q66. Which
scales of measurement are used to identify categories of objects or events?
a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales
Q67. If adverse
environmental impacts is labeled as “high – medium – low” as rated “3 – 2 – 1”,
then which scale would be useful to assign values represents things that are
better or worse in comparison others?
a) Nominal scales
b) Ordinal scales
c) Interval scales
d) Ratio scales
Q68. Whatever
type of measure is selected, that must be
a) Reliable
b) Valid
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q69. Documents
that the organization feels are necessary to ensure effective operation &
control of process related to its significant environmental aspects, are
required by
a) Clause 4.1.1
b) Clause 4.2.2
c) Clause 4.3.3
d) Clause 4.4.4
Q70. Data,
which inform an organization whether procedure are being followed & whether
they are effective in managing environmental aspects & controlling related
environmental impacts.
a) Data obtained
form ICP
b) Data obtained
from EMS
c) Data obtained
through the measurement techniques
d) Data obtained
through the measurement & monitoring techniques
Q71. For ISO
14001 registration, an organization must provide evidence of
a) A procedure for
evaluating legal compliance
b) Compliance review
by management
c) Corrective action
for any noncompliance
d) All above
Q72. If the
organization’s ……………………………… has not identified the noncompliance, the registrar
audit team will ascertain whether the organization had identified & has
access to its legal & other requirements.
a) Internal audits
b) External audit
c) Registration
audit
d) None
Q73. Who will
first attempt to determine whether the audited organization’s internal audit
team identified the same noncompliance?
a) Audit team
b) Manager
c) Registrar Audit
Team
d) Auditor
Q74. If
organization has identified the requirement with which its fails to comply, the
registrar audit team will question, that
a) Why evaluation of
compliance did not reveal this efficiency
b) Why evaluation of
compliance is not suitable
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q75. Clause,
which says that, ‘the organization shall keep records of the results of the
periodic evaluation, is
a) Clause 4.5.2.1
b) Clause 4.5.2.2
c) Clause 4.4.2
d) Clause 4.4.3
Q76. Who is
responsible for the scheduling & completion of quarterly audits of
objectives & targets & periodic audits of selective environmental
compliance issues?
a) Technical
Services Manager
b) Satellite point
Manager
c) EMS Manager
d) ISO 14001
Coordinator
Q77. Preventive
action is defined as
a) Action to
eliminate the causing of a potential nonconformity
b) Action to
eliminate the cause of a potential conformity
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q78. Identification
of nonconformities tends to be considered in conjunction with
a) Environmental
Management System
b) EMS Audits
c) List of
nonconformities
d) None
Q79. An
organization must take action to mitigate environmental harm that already
resulted from the
a) Conformity
b) Mistake
c) Nonconformity
d) Process
Q80. When
corrective or preventive action is taken, the …………………….. will review the action
at an appropriate time to determine the results of the action.
a) Technical
Services Manager
b) ISO 14001
Coordinator
c) Suppliers
d) Environmental
Manager/ Designee
Q81. Prevention
action defined as “action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity”
in section
a) Section 3.17
b) Section 3.15
c) Section 3.3
d) None
Q82. …………………….
provide information that confirms the occurrence of activities or verifies
performance relative to a fixed or recommended standard.
a) Data
b) Files
c) Records
d) Diaries
Q83. The ISO
14001 :2004 states explicitly that records must be kept
a) Compliance,
training & awareness
b) Monitoring &
measurement
c) Internal audit
d) All above
Q84. Internal
audit is defined in
a) Clause 4.3.1
b) Clause 4.5.5
c) Clause 4.4.1
d) Clause 4.4.3
Q85. Records
should be in ink, rather than pencil, to prevent
a) Smudging
b) Darkness
c) Readability
Q86. The
linkage between an activity and an associated record should be clear, this feature
of record is known as
a) Identifiable
b) Legible
c) Traceable
d) All above
Q87. Which
section defines an auditor is a “person with the competence to conduct an
audit”?
a) Section 3.14
b) Section 3.17
c) Section 3.1
d) Section 3.4
Q88. Any
record, electronic or hard copy, identified on the environmental records
retention schedule that demonstrates conformance with EMS & legal &
other requirements, is known as
a) Environmental
record
b) Environmental
aspect
c) Information
d) Document
Q89. The
……………….. is used to determine if it is time to destroy an environmental record.
a) EMS List
b) Employee’s Detail
List
c) Records Retention
List
d) None
Q90. An
environmental management system audit is
a) Environmental
performance audit
b) Regulatory
Compliance Audit
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q91. An EMS
audit verifies that appropriate procedures are in place & functioning to
ensure conformity with
a) ISO 14001 : 2004
b) An organization’s
document
c) Both (a) &
(b)
d) None
Q92. The
internal audit procedure must address
a) Responsibilities
b) Audit Criteria
c) Frequency
d) All above
Q93. Smaller
organizations may be unable to delicate the resources required for a sufficient
no. of auditors. In such a circumstance, an organization might borrow auditors
from
a) Corporate headquarters
b) Consortia
c) Consulting firms
d) Sister facilities
Q94. Information
that is verifiable & is based on facts obtained through observation
measurement, testing, or other means, is
a) Nonconformance
b) Conformance
c) Objective
evidence
d) None
Q95. Input to
management review shall include
a) Results of
internal audits
b) Communication(s)
from external interested parties, including complaints
c) Status of
corrective & preventive actions
d) All above
Q96. Management
review should be viewed as
a) Strategic
b) Potential
c) Tactical in
Nature
d) None
Q97. Decision –
makers, who contribute to the management review process & provide the
authority & resources to address recommended improvements, are
a) Managers
b) Employees
c) Contractors
d) Executives
Q98. The reason
given by SMEs for implementing ISO 14001 is
a) Customer
requirements
b) Continuous
improvement or environmental performance
c) Improved
regulatory compliance
d) All above
Q99. The small
organization, those with one to five employees, sometimes referred to as
a) Medium
enterprises
b) Micro enterprises
c) Mini enterprises
d) Super enterprises
Q100. Continual
improvement as a “recurring process of enhancing the environmental management
system in order to achieve improvements in overall environmental performance
consistent with the organization’s environment policy”, is defined by
a) Section 3.1
b) Section 3.14
c) Section 3.17
d) Section 3.2
No comments:
Post a Comment