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Six Sigma Green Belt
Multiple
Choices
Q1. The
Following is a sample data set. 10 8 8 6 5 What is the variance of this data
set?
a. 3.0
b. 3.8
c. 7.3
d. 7.4
Q2. An
auditor should use a histogram in a quality audit to do which of the following?
a. Provide
objective evidence that the audited uses statistical process control (SPC)
b. Expose
patterns that are normally difficult to detect
c. Interpret
data for a trend chart
d. create a
stratified tally diagram
Q3.
Comparing how a process is actually performed against the documented work
instruction for that process is an example of which of the following
techniques?
a.
Quantitative
b.
Qualitative
c.
Statistical
d. Random
sampling
Q4.
Attribute sampling should be used when
a. The data
are measurements in metric units.
b.
Ayes-or-no decision is to be made.
c. The
population has variability.
d. A
multi-stage sampling plan is needed.
Q5. Scatter
diagrams are best described as
a.
Histograms.
b.
Correlation analysis.
c. Pareto
analysis.
d. Ishikawa
diagrams.
Q6. If data
are plotted over time, the resulting chart will be a
a. Run chart
b. Histogram
c. Pareto
chart
d. Poisson
distribution
Q7. To
determine who are or might be customers for a specific process, it would be
most useful to create a
a. Pareto
chart
b. Flow
diagram
c. Cause and
effect diagram
d. Scatter
diagram
Q8. A
production line uses signs at specific points on the line to indicate when
components or raw materials need to be replenished. The practice is an example
of
a. Kanban
b. Poka-yake
c.
Checkpoints
d. Hoshin
Q9. Which of
the following is a good tool for planning cycle time reduction and concurrent
operations?
a. A
timeline
b. A Pareto
diagram
c. An X and
R chart
d. A PERT
chart
Q10.
Attribute and variable data are best described as which of the following?
Attribute variable
a. Counted
values measured values
b. Counted
values visual features
c. Measured
values counted values
d. Visual
features counted values
Q11. All of
the following are common ways for people to react to conflict EXCEPT
a. Competing
b.
Collaborating
c. Avoiding
d.
Sabotaging
Q12. A
quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction by talking samples
based on the categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and
demographic. This technique is known as
a. Random
sampling
b. Data
collection
c.
Stratification
d. Customer
classification
Q13. Which
of the following actions is Not used to reduce process cycle time?
a. Analyzing
current processes
b. Reducing
queue times
c. Setting
priorities
d.
Implementing activity-based costing
Q14. A company’s
accounts payable department is trying to reduce the time between receipt and
payment of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the
following tools would be the for them to use next?
a. Fishbone
diagram
b. Scatter
diagram
c. Box and
whisker plat
d. Histogram
Q15. In a
manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of customer in relation to
the human resource department?
a.
Intermediate
b. Hidden
c. External
d. Internal
Q16. The
primary purpose of a project charter is to
a. Subdivide
the project into smaller, more manageable components
b. Provide
management with a tool for selecting a project that addresses business needs
c. Provide
management with a tool to ensure that project deadlines are met
d. Provide
the project manager with authority to apply organizational resources to project
activities
Q17. Sample
selection of parts for inspection must be selected at random to ensure
a. A minimum
sample size.
b. The
probability of not rejecting the lot
c. The probability
of accepting the lot
d. Finding
typical characteristics of the lot.
Q18. Which
of the following are bases for establishing calibration intervals?
I. Stability
II.Purpose
III.Degree
of usage
a. I and II
only
b. I and III
only
c. II and
III only
d. I, II,
and III
Q19.
Specification limits are derived from which of the following?
a. Process
capability studies
b. Process
control charts
c. Customer
requirements
d.
Historical data
Q20. The
primary purpose of a control chart is to
a. Set Specifications
and tolerances
b. compare
operations.
c. Determine
the stability of a process.
d. Accept or
reject a lot of material
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Q21. When a
control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of
the following times?
a. Before
the chart is first started
b. After the
first ten points are plotted
c. When the
plotted points hug the centerline
d. After the
process is shown to be in control
Q22.
Precision is best described as
a. A
comparison to a known standard
b. The
achievement of expected outgoing quality
c. The
repeated consistency of results
d. The
difference between an average measurement and the actual value
Q23. The
overall ability of two or more operators to obtain Consistent results
repeatedly when measuring the same set of parts and using the same measuring
equipment is the definition of
a.
Repeatability
b. Precision
c.
Reproducibility
d. Accuracy
Q24. Which
of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of
statistical control?
a. Most of
the product out by the process is in specification.
b. All
subgroup averages and rang are within control limits.
c. All
variation has been completely removed
d.
Previously optimal process settings are used.
Q25. Which
of the following measures of dispersion is equal to the sum of deviations from
the mean squared divided by the sample size?
a. Range
b. Standard
deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
Q26. An X
and R chart is used to
a. Indicate
process variation
b. Specify
design Limits
c. Interpret
costs
d. Identify
customer expectations
Q27. Which
of the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting an
understanding of process capability?
a. A
flowchart
b. A
histogram
c. An
affinity diagram
d. An
Ishikawa diagram
Q28. The
type of chart that presents the value of items in descending order is a
a. Histogram
b. Pareto
chart
c. U chart
d. Cusum
chart
Q29.
Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?
a.
Temperature in degrees
b.
Attendance at meetings
c. Weight in
pounds
d. Length in
metric units
Q30. The
fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types
of control chart?
a. P chart
b. U chart
c. Np chart
d. C chart
Q31. A cause
and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which of the following?
a.
Determining the flow of a process
b. Detecting
shifts in a process
c.
Developing theories based on symptoms
d. Arranging
theories by defect count
Q32. Which
of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a
sample of data?
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard
deviation
d. Range
Q33. Which
of the following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?
a. Histogram
b. Frequency
distributions
c. Pareto chart
d. Process
observations
Q34. Which
of the following techniques is most useful in narrowing issues and limiting
discussion?
a.
Brainstorming
b. Quality
function deployment
c. Cause and
effect analysis
d.
Mutilating
Q35. In
statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or systematic is called
a. Bias
b.
Sensitivity
c. Random
d. Shift
Q36. A
customer satisfaction survey used the following rating scale:
1= very
satisfied
2= Satisfied
3= Neutral
4=
dissatisfied
5= very
dissatisfied
This is an
example of which of the following measurement scales?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Interval
Q37. Which
of the following techniques is used in identifying underlying problems?
a. Cause and
effect analysis
b.
Prioritization matrix
c. Force
field analysis
d. Pareto
analysis
Q38. For a
normal distribution, two standard deviation on each side of the mean would
include what percentage of the total population
a. 47%
b. 68%
c. 95%
d. 99%
Q39. In
measurement system analysis, which of the following pairs of data measures is
used to determine total variance?
a. Process
variance and reproducibility
b. Noise
system and repeatability
c.
Measurement variance and process variance
d. System
variance and bias
Q40. Process
data being used in the initial set-up of a process are assumed have a normal
distribution. If the nominal (target) is at the center of the distribution, and
the specification limits are set at = 3 from the center the Cpk is equal to
a .-0.25
b. 1.00
c. 1.33
d. 1.67
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Q41. A green
belt is going to monitor the number of defects on different size samples. Which
of the following control chart would be most appropriate?
a. u
b. np
c. c
d. p
Q42.
Correction, over-production, inventory, and motion are all examples of
a .waste
b. 5S target
areas
c. Noise
d.
Value-added activities
Q43. The
primary factor in the successful implementation of six sigma is to have
a. The
necessary resources
b. The
support/leadership of top management
c. Explicit
customer requirements
d. A
comprehensive training program
Q44. Which
of the following types of variation is LEAST likely to occur in sequential
repetitions of a process over a short period of time?
a. Cyclical
b.Positional
c. Temporal
d. Seasonal
Q45. The
primary reason that most companies implement six sigma is to
a. Reduce
defects
b. Improve
Processes
c. Improve
profit
d. Increase
customer satisfaction
Q46. The
term used to describe the risk of a type I error in a test of hypotheses is
a. Power
b.
Confidence level
c. Level of
significance
d. Beta risk
Q47. One
characteristic of attributes data is that it is always
a
.continuous
b. Discrete
c. Expensive
to collect
d. Read from
a scale of measurement
Q48. Which
of the following tests may be used to determine whether a sample comes from a
population with an exponential distribution?
a. T
b. F
c.
Chi-square
d. ANOVA
Q49. Which
of the following tools are appropriate for a quality engineer to use in
qualifying a process that has variable data?
I. An and R
control chat
II. A his to
gram
III. A cc
hart
IV.A p chart
a. I and II
only
b. II and
III only
c. III and
IV only
d. I, II,
and IV only
Q50. The
correlation coefficient for the length and weight of units made by a process is
determined to be 0.27. if the process were adjusted to reduce the weight of
each unit by 0.5 ounce, the correlation coefficient of the length and weight of
the units made by the new process would be equal to
a. 0.50
b. 0.27
c. 0.23
d. -0.23
Q51. A form,
in either diagram or table format, that is prepared in advance for recording
data is known as a
a.
Cause-and-effect diagram
b. Pareto
chart
c. Flowchart
d. Check
sheet
Q52. A major
drawback of using histogram in process control is that they
a. do not
readily account for the factor of time
b. Are
relatively difficult to construct and interpret
c. Require
too many data points
d. Require
too many intervals
Q53. Which
of the following tools would be of the greatest use for finding the most
efficient path and realistic schedule for the completion of a project?
a.
Interrelationship diagram
b. Activity
network diagram
c. Tree
diagram
d. Affinity
diagram
Q54. A
control plan is designed to do which of the following?
a. Supplement
information contained in operator instructions
b. Support
the production scheduling system
c. Provide a
documented system for controlling processes
d. Provide a
method for tracking the design review process
Q55. To
determine the average number of nonconforming parts over time, which of the
following attribute control chart would be most appropriate?
a. A chat
b. Np chart
c. P chart
d. U chat
Q56. Which
of the following techniques is most appropriate for generating continuous
improvement ideas?
a. Tree
diagram
b.
Brainstorming
c.
Prioritization matrix
d.
Interrelationship diagraph
Q57. Which
of the following tools is used extensively quality function deployment (QFD)?
a. Affinity
diagram
b. Matrix
diagram
c. Cause and
effect diagram
d. Activity
network diagram
Q58. Which
of the following tools is most likely to be organizing a list of ideas
generated during a brainstorming session?
a. Activity
network diagram
b. Affinity
diagram
c. Histogram
d. Process
control chart
Q59. Which
of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study
the symptoms of a problem?
a. A check
sheet
b.A flow
diagram
c. A force
field analysis
d. An
activity network diagram
Q60. Kaizen
is defined as
a.
Re-engineering
b. Lean
manufacturing
c.
Continuous improvement
d. Error
–proofing
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Q61. The
LEAST informative of the four measurement scales is the
a. Ratio
b. Nominal
c. Ordinal
d. Interval
Q62. Which
of the following can used to determine the goodness of fit of a distribution to
a data set?
a. T test
b. ANOVA
c. F test
d. Chi
square test
Q63. A fair
coin is tossed 10 times. What are the expected mean and variance of the number
of heads?Mean variance
a. 0.5 0.025
b. 5.0 2.500
c. 5.0 5.000
d. 10.0 5.000
Q64. A
process capability analysis is NOT used to
a. Determine
the ability of a process to meet specifications
b. Maintain
a process in a state of statistical control
c. Establish
new specifications
d.
Prioritize competing processes
Q65. A type
of line graph used to assess the stability of a process is called a
a. Control
chart
b. Pareto
chart
c. Check
sheet
d. cause and
effect diagram
Q66. A
process produces nonconformities according to a distribution. If the mean of
the nonconformities is 25, what is the standard deviation?
a. 2.5
b. 5.0
c. 12.5
d. 25.0
Q67. Five
six-sided dice are rolled together 100 times. Two histograms are constructed:
one for the 500 individual results and one for the 100 averages of five
results. In this situation, the individual results follow a uniform
distribution, while the averages follow which of the following distributions?
a. Normal
b. Student’s
t
c.Binomial
d. Uniform
Q68. A
calibrated micrometer was used to take 10 replicated measures of a reference
standard. If X m=0.073, and the true value of the reference standard is 0.075,
what is the bias of the micrometer?
a. 0.001
b. 0.002
c. 0.073
d. 0.075
Q69. The
power of a test for the difference between means is measured by
a. A
b. 1-a
c. B
d. 1-b
Q70. A
process is stable and its output is normally distributed. The process has a
specification of 16.73=0.01. What is the maximum process standard deviation if
the Cp must be=1.5?
a. 0.0011
b. 0.0022
c. 0.0041
d. 0.0133
Q71. Which
of the following is the most effective technique for prioritizing critical
factors foe problemsolving?
a. Venn
diagram
b. Scatter
diagram
c. Pareto
diagram
d. Cause and
effect diagram
Q72. The
main advantage of a matrix diagram is that it
a. Displays
all the possible causes related to a problem
b. Displays
the strength of relationship between each paired combination of variables
c.
Identifies, analyzes, and classifies the cause and effect relationship that
among all critical issues
d.
Identifies a sequence of actions and materials entering a process
Q73.
Poka-yake is best defined as
a. Improving
machine efficiency
b. Reducing
field failures to virtually zero
c. Capturing
the voice of the customer
d.
Preventing controllable defects
Q74. Which
of the following describes the 95% confidence interval of a 20% absentee rate
in a department with 30 people?
a. 6% to 34%
b. 8% to 32%
c .13% to
27%
d. 17% to
23%
Q75. Which
of the following are needed to calculate the process capability index,Cp?
a. The
specification limits and the mean
b. The
specification limits and s^ (Sigma Cap)
c. The
process mean and s^(Sigma Cap)
d. The upper
and lower specification limits
Q76.
Repeatability and reproducibility are terms that operationally define
a. Bias
b. Accuracy
c.
Discrimination
d.
Precision’
Q77. A
method that classifies data without significantly reducing accuracy or
precision is known as
a. Bias
adjustment
b.
Statistical efficiency
c. Blocking
d. Coding
Q78. If a
process has a variance of 4 units and a specification of 96+4, what is the
process performance index (Pp)?
a .0.33
b. 0.66
c. 1.00
d. 1.50
Q79. If a
histogram has a distribution that is bimodal this indicates that the
a. Process
is in control
b.
Distribution is abnormal
c. Data
collected is accurate
d. Data has
two points
Q80. Which
of the following best describes how an affinity diagram is used?
a. Grasping
organizational performance relative to contrasting data
b.
Prioritizing data from most signification to least significant
c. Grouping
ideas that are created during brainstorming
d.
Identifying when a process is in control
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Q81.
Warranty claims are classified in which of the following cost of quality
groups?
a. Internal
failure
b. External
failure
c. Appraisal
d.
Prevention
Q82. At what
stage of the problem-solving process would a team most likely use a
cause-effect diagram?
a.
Description of the process associated with the problem
b. Definition
of the problem and its scope
c.
Organization of possible problem causes
d.
Collection of data to identify actual causes
Q83. Steel
bars are cut to cylindrical shafts by means of a lathe. The diameter and
allowable tolerance of the shaft is 2.00=.001 inch. A control chart is used to
monitor the quality level of the process. Which of the following plots on the
control chart might indicate a problem of wear on the lathe?
a. The
diameter of a single shaft above 2.001 inch
b. The
diameter of a single shaft below 1.999 inch
c. An
Apparent increasing trend in the shaft diameters
d. Erratic
in-tolerance or out-of-tolerance diameter measurements
Q84. A
sample consists of one or more units of product drawn from a lot or batch on
the basis of
a. Defect of
the product
b. Random
selection
c. Size of
the product
d. When the
inspection process was completed
Q85. What is
the percent yield for a normally distributed process in which the item length
specification is 5.750=0.004, X is 5.752, and the standard deviation is 0.002?
a. 15.73%
b. 19.15%
c. 47.72%
d. 83.99%
Q86. In
preparation for construction of a cause and effect diagram, it is important to
a. Plot
separate chart for each source
b. Focus
only on what makes thing go wrong
c. Record
everything people suggest
d. Validate
possible root cause
Q87. Which
of the following tools should be used a team is generating and prioritizing a
list of options that include highly controversial issues?
a.
Brainstorming
b. Affinity
diagram
c. Nominal
group technique
d. 5 whys
Q88. If a
distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what percentage of data will be less than
30?
a. 59.18%
b. 40.82%
c. 9.18%
d. 1.33%
Q89. A
company is receiving an unusually high number of returns from various
customers. The first step in investigating the problem would be to
a. Check the
inspection records
b. Establish
the correlation of the returns to shipments
c.
Brainstorm the potential causes
d. Classify
the returns by type and degree of serious
Q90. Which
of the following is the best definition of a flow chart?
a. A diagram
used to structure ideas into useful categories
b. An
illustration used to analyze variation in a process
c. A picture
used to separate steps of a process in sequential order
d. An
analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a desired change
Q91. Which
of the following activities would NOT contribute to the effective functioning
of a team?
a.
Eliminating unnecessary activities
b.
Development team performance measures
c. Defining
process in detail
d.
Monitoring each member’s performance
Q92. What is
the standard deviation of the population below? 10, 4, 16, 12, 8
a. 4.00
b. 4.47
c .16.00
d. 20.00
Q93. Which
of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study
the symptoms of a problem?
a .Check
sheet
b. Flow
diagram
c.
Force-field analysis
d. Activity
network diagram
Q94. Which
of the following measures is a sufficient statistic for the parameter u?
a. Median
b. Mid-range
c. Mean
d. Mode
Q95.
Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most commonly analyzed in
a. SPC
charts
b.
Multi-vari charts
c. Cause and
effect diagram
d. Run
charts
Q96. Which
of the following describes the deming method for continuous improvement?
a. Cost of
quality analysis
b. Process
map
c. Tree
Diagram
d.
Plan-do-check-act cycle
Q97. in
analysis of variance, Which of the following distributions is the basis for
determining whether the variance estimates are all from the same population?
a. Chi
square
b. Student’s
c. Normal
d. F
Q98. Which
of the following statement best describes the set all value of a random
variable?
a. It is
finite.
b. It is an
interval
c. It can be
discrete or continuous.
d. It can be
tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.
Q99. Which
of the following is the best description of randomization?
a. A
technique used to increase the precision of an experiment
b. A means
of assuring representative sampling
c. The
repetition of an observation or measurement
d. The
relationship between two or more variables
Q100. When
the order of items is not important, which of the following is the method to
use to determine the number of sets and subsets of items?
a.
Combination
b.
Permutation
c.
Factorization
d.
Simulation
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